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CIE 9231 2022 June Paper 12 Q1

A Level / CIE / FP1

CIE 9231 2022 June Paper 12 Paper · Question 1

题目

Problem

Let aa be a positive constant.

(a) Use the method of differences to find ∑r=1n1(ar+1)(ar+a+1)\displaystyle\sum_{r=1}^{n}\frac{1}{(ar+1)(ar+a+1)} in terms of nn and aa.

(4)

(b) Find the value of aa for which ∑r=1∞1(ar+1)(ar+a+1)=16\displaystyle\sum_{r=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(ar+1)(ar+a+1)}=\frac16.

(3)
题目中文翻译

设 aa 为正常数。

(a) 用裂项相消法求 ∑r=1n1(ar+1)(ar+a+1)\displaystyle\sum_{r=1}^{n}\frac{1}{(ar+1)(ar+a+1)},用 nn 和 aa 表示。

(4)

(b) 求使 ∑r=1∞1(ar+1)(ar+a+1)=16\displaystyle\sum_{r=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(ar+1)(ar+a+1)}=\frac16 成立的 aa 的值。

(3)
原卷通用作答要求

Answer all questions. You should use a calculator where appropriate.

You must show all necessary working clearly; no marks will be given for unsupported answers from a calculator.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, or 1 decimal place for angles in degrees, unless a different level of accuracy is specified in the question.

请回答所有题目。适当时应使用计算器。必须清楚展示所有必要的计算过程;仅给出计算器答案而没有过程,不予评分。除非题目另有精度要求,非精确数值答案保留 3 位有效数字,以度为单位的角度保留 1 位小数。

解答

(a)

解法一

思路

展开

相邻两个一次因式相差 aa,先裂项,再把开头和结尾的项展开,展示中间项如何相消。

答题过程

展开

Since a>0a>0,

1(ar+1)(ar+a+1)=1a(1ar+1−1a(r+1)+1).\frac1{(ar+1)(ar+a+1)}=\frac1a\bigg(\frac1{ar+1}-\frac1{a(r+1)+1}\bigg).

Thus, for n≥6n\ge6,

Sn= 1a[(1a+1−12a+1) +(12a+1−13a+1) +(13a+1−14a+1)+⋯ +(1a(n−2)+1−1a(n−1)+1) +(1a(n−1)+1−1an+1) +(1an+1−1a(n+1)+1)]= 1a(1a+1−1an+a+1).\begin{align*} S_n=&\,\frac1a\bigg[\bigg(\frac1{a+1}-\frac1{2a+1}\bigg)\\[4mm] &\,\hspace{2pt}+\bigg(\frac1{2a+1}-\frac1{3a+1}\bigg)\\[4mm] &\,\hspace{4pt}+\bigg(\frac1{3a+1}-\frac1{4a+1}\bigg)+\cdots\\[4mm] &\,\hspace{6pt}+\bigg(\frac1{a(n-2)+1}-\frac1{a(n-1)+1}\bigg)\\[4mm] &\,\hspace{8pt}+\bigg(\frac1{a(n-1)+1}-\frac1{an+1}\bigg)\\[4mm] &\,\hspace{10pt}+\bigg(\frac1{an+1}-\frac1{a(n+1)+1}\bigg)\bigg]\\[4mm] =&\,\boxed{\frac1a\bigg(\frac1{a+1}-\frac1{an+a+1}\bigg)}. \end{align*}

The intermediate terms cancel in adjacent pairs. For small nn, the displayed beginning and end overlap; each summand is included only once. The same cancellation, or direct substitution, confirms the result for n=1,2,3,4,5n=1,2,3,4,5.

(b)

解法一

思路

展开

沿用有限和,先利用 a>0a>0 取极限,再解二次方程并排除非正根。

答题过程

展开

As n→∞n\to\infty, 1/(an+a+1)→01/(an+a+1)\to0 because a>0a>0. Hence

∑r=1∞1(ar+1)(ar+a+1)=1a(a+1).\sum_{r=1}^{\infty}\frac1{(ar+1)(ar+a+1)}=\frac1{a(a+1)}.

Therefore

a(a+1)= 6,a2+a−6= 0,(a+3)(a−2)= 0.\begin{align*} a(a+1)=&\,6,\\[4mm] a^2+a-6=&\,0,\\[4mm] (a+3)(a-2)=&\,0. \end{align*}

Since a>0a>0, a=2\boxed{a=2}.