题目
Problem
Prove by mathematical induction that, for all positive integers n,
dxndn(tan−1x)=Pn(x)(1+x2)−n,
where Pn(x) is a polynomial of degree n−1.
(6)
题目中文翻译
用数学归纳法证明:对所有正整数 n,
dxndn(tan−1x)=Pn(x)(1+x2)−n,
其中 Pn(x) 是一个 n−1 次多项式。
(6)
原卷通用作答要求
Answer all questions. You should use a calculator where appropriate.
You must show all necessary working clearly; no marks will be given for unsupported answers from a calculator.
Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, or 1 decimal place for angles in degrees, unless a different level of accuracy is specified in the question.
请回答所有题目。适当时应使用计算器。必须清楚展示所有必要的计算过程;仅给出计算器答案而没有过程,不予评分。除非题目另有精度要求,非精确数值答案保留 3 位有效数字,以度为单位的角度保留 1 位小数。
解答
解法一
思路
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归纳求导后把分母统一为下一次幂,得到新多项式的递推式。还必须检查最高次项没有抵消,才能证明次数恰好为k,而不只是至多为k。
答题过程
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Let f(x)=tan−1x. For n=1,
f′(x)=1+x21=P1(x)(1+x2)−1,
where P1(x)=1 has degree 0. Thus the result holds for n=1.
Assume it holds for some integer k⩾1, with Pk of degree k−1. Differentiating,
f(k+1)(x)==Pk′(x)(1+x2)−k−2kxPk(x)(1+x2)−k−1[(1+x2)Pk′(x)−2kxPk(x)](1+x2)−k−1.
Define
Pk+1(x)=(1+x2)Pk′(x)−2kxPk(x).
This is a polynomial of degree at most k. If the leading coefficient of Pk is a=0, the coefficient of xk in Pk+1 is
(k−1)a−2ka=−(k+1)a=0.
This formula also holds for k=1, when P1′=0. Hence Pk+1 has degree exactly k, and the required formula holds for n=k+1.
The statement is true for n=1 and truth for n=k implies truth for n=k+1. Therefore, by induction, it holds for every positive integer n.